If  $\int \frac{(1+x\cos x-\sin x)dx}{{(x+\sin x+\cos x)}^{\raisebox{1ex}{$1$}\!\left/ \!\raisebox{-1ex}{$2$}\right.}{(x-\sin x+\cos x)}^{\raisebox{1ex}{$3$}\!\left/ \!\raisebox{-1ex}{$2$}\right.}}=$${(x+l\sin x+m\cos x)}^n{(x+p\sin x+q\cos x)}^r+C$  (Where C is constant of integration and  $l>0,p<0$) then the value of  $\left(\frac{l+m}{n}\right)(p-q)r$ is equal to