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Q.

If π/2x32sin2zdz+0ycostdt=0 then  dydx at (π/2,π) is

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a

1

b

2

c

3

d

 0

answer is A.

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Detailed Solution

Differentiating w ·r· t· x, we get

32sin2x+dydxcosy=0

Putting x=π/2 and y=π we get

dydx(π/2,π)=1.

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