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Q.

If a2+b2=1, then 1+b+ia1+bia=

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a

1

b

b+ia

c

a+ib

d

2

answer is C.

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Detailed Solution

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Given that a2+b2=1, therefore

1+b+ia1+bia=(1+b+ia)(1+b+ia)(1+bia)(1+b+ia)

=(1+b)2a2+2ia(1+b)1+b2+2b+a2=(1a2)+2b+b2+2ia(1+b)2(1+b)

=2b2+2b+2ia(1+b)2(1+b)=b+ia

Trick :  Put  a=0,b=11+b+ia1+bia=1+1+01+10=1

But options (1) and (3) give 1.

So again put a=1,b=0,1+b+ia1+bia=1+i1i=i

Which gives (3) only.

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If a2+b2=1, then 1+b+ia1+b−ia=