Statement I : If Rolle’s theorem be applied in $f\left(x\right)$ then Lagrange’s Mean Value theorem(LMVT) is also applied in $f\left(x\right)$
Statement II : Both Rolle’s theorem and LMVT cannot be applied in $f\left(x\right)=\left|\sin \right|x\left|\right|in[-\frac{\pi }{4},\frac{\pi }{4}]$

Statement-I and Statement-II are true Statement-II is not the correct explanation of Statement-I

Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false

Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true

Statement-I and Statement-II are true Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I