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Q.

The integral 01/alog (1+ax)1+a2x2dx(a>0) is equal to 

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a

a(log 2)π8

b

1a(log 2)π4

c

1a(log 2)π8

d

1a2(log 2)

answer is C.

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Detailed Solution

Put ax=t, the given integral reduces to

1a01log (1+t)1+t2dt=1a0π/4log (1+tan u)1+tan2 usec2 udu(ttan u)=1a0π/4log (1+tan u)du=1a0π/4log1+tanπ4udu=1a0π/4log 1+1tan u1+tan udu=1a0π/4[log 2log (1+tan u)]du2a0π/4log (1+tan u)du=1a(log 2)π41a0π/4log(1+tan u)du=1a(log 2)π8

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