$T h e d o m a i n o f \log (\tan^{- 1} x) i s$

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$R$

$R^{+}$

$[0, \infty)$

$(- \frac{π}{2}, \frac{π}{2})$

answer is B.

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Detailed Solution

$\begin{array}{l} f (x) = \log (T a n^{- 1} x) i s d e f i n e d i f f \\ {Tan}^{- 1} x > 0 \\ B u t d o m a i n o f {Tan}^{- 1} x i s R \\ D o m a i n o f f (x) i s R^{+} = (0, \infty) \end{array}$

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