The function f satisfying f(b)−f(a)b−a≠f'(x) for any x∈(a,b) is
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a
f(x)=x1/3,a=−1,b=1
b
f(x)={2 x=1x2 1
c
f(x)=x|x|;a=−1,b=1
d
f(x)=1/x;a=1,b=4
answer is B.
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Detailed Solution
The function in (a) ,(c) ,(d) satisfying hypothesis of Lagrange’s mean value theorem so there is c∈(a,b) such that f(b)−f(a)b−a=f'(c). The function in (b) is differentiable on (1,2) but not continuous at x=1 and x=2 as limx→1+f(x)=limx→1+x2=1≠f(1) and limx→2−f(x)=limx→2−x2=4≠f(2). Moreover , f(2)−f(1)2−1=−1 and f'(x)=2x>0 on (1,2) so there is no x∈(1,2) such that f(2)−f(1)2−1=f'(x).