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Questions  

Given the following two statements:

(S1):(qp)(p↔∼q) is a tautology. 

S2:∼q(~pq) s a fallacy. Then

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a
both (S1) and (S2) are not correct
b
only (S1) is correct
c
both (S1) and (S2) are  correct
d
only (S2) is correct
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detailed solution

Correct option is A

Given statement (S1):(q∨p)→(p↔∼q) is a tautology. For S1:S1 is not a tautology, so S1, is not correct.Now, S2:(~q)∧((~p)↔q) is a fallacy. For S2:S2 is not a tautology, so S2, is not correct.Hence, option (a) is correct.


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