If the functions f(x) and g(x) are defined on R→R such that f(x)=0,x∈ rational x,x∈ irrational and g(x)=0,x∈ irrational x,x∈ rational then (f−g)(x) is
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a
one-one and onto
b
neither one-one nor onto
c
one-one but not onto
d
onto but not one-one
answer is A.
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Detailed Solution
We are given thatf:R→R,f(x)=0,x∈ rational x,x∈ irrational g:R→R,g(x)=0,x∈ irrational x,x∈ rational ∴ (f−g):R→R such that (f−g)(x)=−x, if x∈ rational x, if x∈ irrational Since (f−g):R→R for any x, there is only one value of ( f(x)−g(x)) whether x is rational or irrational. Moreover, as x∈R,f(x)−g(x) also belongs to R . Therefore, (f−g) is one-one and onto.