First slide
Evaluation of definite integrals
Question

 If I=0π2cos(sinx)dx,J=0π2sin(cosx)dx and K=0π2cosxdx, then 

Difficult
Solution

 Given that I=0π2cos(sinx)dx,J=0π2sin(cosx)dx,k=0π2cosxdx We know that cos(sinx)>cosx>sin(cosx) for x0,π2 since sinx <x  for x0,π2   sincosx <cosx   replace x by cosx   and   again  sinx< x  cossinx>cosx     since cos function is decreasing in0,π2                                                                                                                                                                                                                        0π2cos(sinx)dx>0π2cosxdx>0π2sin(cosx)dxI>K>J

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