Q.
Let f:0,π2→[0,1] be a differentiable function such that f(0)=0,fπ2=1 then
see full answer
Start JEE / NEET / Foundation preparation at rupees 99/day !!
21% of IItians & 23% of AIIMS delhi doctors are from Sri Chaitanya institute !!
An Intiative by Sri Chaitanya
a
f'(α)=1-[f(a)]2 for atleast one a∈0,π2
b
f'(α)=2π for atleast one α∈0,π2
c
f(α)f'(α)=1π for atleast one α∈0,π2
d
f'(α)=8απ2 for atleast one α∈0,π2
answer is A.
(Unlock A.I Detailed Solution for FREE)
Ready to Test Your Skills?
Check your Performance Today with our Free Mock Test used by Toppers!
Take Free Test
Detailed Solution
Consider g(x)=sin-1f(x)-xg(0)=0,gπ2=0 A) By Rolle's theorem there is atleast one value of α∈0,π2 such that g'(α)=0⇒f'(α)1-f(α)2-1=0⇒f'(α)=1-(f(α))2 It is not true for all values of a B) Consider g(x)=f(x)-2xπg(0)=0,gπ2=0g'(x)=0 at least for one value of α∈0,π2⇒f'(α)=2π for atleast one value of α∈0,π2 C) Consider g(x)=[f(x)]2-4x2π2g(0)=0,gπ2=0⇒g'(x)=0 for atleast one value of α∈0,π2f(α)f'(α)=1π( true ) D) Consider g(x)=f(x)-4x2π2,g(0)=0 and gπ2=0f'(α)=8απ2 atleast for one value of α∈0,π2
Watch 3-min video & get full concept clarity