Q.

Let f:0,π2→[0,1] be a differentiable function such that f(0)=0,fπ2=1 then

see full answer

Start JEE / NEET / Foundation preparation at rupees 99/day !!

21% of IItians & 23% of AIIMS delhi doctors are from Sri Chaitanya institute !!
An Intiative by Sri Chaitanya

a

f'(α)=1-[f(a)]2 for atleast one a∈0,π2

b

f'(α)=2π for atleast one α∈0,π2

c

f(α)f'(α)=1π for atleast one α∈0,π2

d

f'(α)=8απ2 for atleast one α∈0,π2

answer is A.

(Unlock A.I Detailed Solution for FREE)

Ready to Test Your Skills?

Check your Performance Today with our Free Mock Test used by Toppers!

Take Free Test

Detailed Solution

Consider g(x)=sin-1f(x)-xg(0)=0,gπ2=0 A) By Rolle's theorem there is atleast one value of α∈0,π2 such that g'(α)=0⇒f'(α)1-f(α)2-1=0⇒f'(α)=1-(f(α))2 It is not true for all values of a B) Consider g(x)=f(x)-2xπg(0)=0,gπ2=0g'(x)=0 at least for one value of α∈0,π2⇒f'(α)=2π for atleast one value of α∈0,π2 C) Consider g(x)=[f(x)]2-4x2π2g(0)=0,gπ2=0⇒g'(x)=0 for atleast one value of α∈0,π2f(α)f'(α)=1π( true ) D) Consider g(x)=f(x)-4x2π2,g(0)=0 and gπ2=0f'(α)=8απ2 atleast for one value of α∈0,π2
Watch 3-min video & get full concept clarity
score_test_img

Get Expert Academic Guidance – Connect with a Counselor Today!

whats app icon