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Q.

Let f:R→R  be given by f(x)=ax+bcx+d,a,b,c  and d being non-zero real numbers. Its inverse f−1(x)  will be the same as f(x)  provided

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a

a+b=0

b

a+c=0

c

a+d=0

d

b+c=0

answer is C.

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Detailed Solution

If y=ax+bcx+d,x=−dy+bcy−a  so that f−1(x)=−dx+bcx−a ∴    f−1(x)  will be the same as f(x) , provided a+d=0
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