Let f(x) be defined for all x>0 and be continuous. Let f(x) satisfies fxy=f(x)−f(y) for all x,y and f(e)= 1. Then
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a
f(x) is bounded
b
f1x→0 as x→0
c
xf(x)→1 as x→0
d
f(x)=logex
answer is D.
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Detailed Solution
f(x) is continuous for all x>0 and fxy=f(x)−f(y) Also, f(e)=1 Therefore, clearly, f(x)=logex satisfies all these properties. Thus, f(x)=logex, which is an unbounded function.