Let f(x) be an even function such that ∫0∞ f(x)dx=π2, then the value of the definite integral ∫0∞ fx−1xdx is equal to
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a
π
b
π2
c
3π2
d
2π
answer is B.
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Detailed Solution
Let I=∫0∞ fx−1xdx…………..(1) Put x=1t⇒dx=−1t2dtFrom(1):I=∫∞0 f1t−t−dtt2 Use ∫ab f(x)dx=−∫ba f(x)dx⇒I=∫0∞ f1t−tdtt2⇒I=∫0∞ ft−1tdtt2 (∵f is even function )⇒I=∫0∞ fx−1xdxx2…………...(2)Adding equations (1) & (2) ⇒2I=∫0∞ fx−1xdx+∫0∞ fx−1xdxx2⇒2I=∫0∞ fx−1x1+1x2dx Put x−1x=u⇒1+1x2dx=du∴2I=∫−∞∞ f(u)du ∵ If f is even ∫−aa f(x)=2×∫0a f(x)dx=2∫0∞ f(x)dx=2π2⇒2I=π∴I=π2