Let g is the inverse function of f and f′(x)=x101+x2. It g(2)=a then g′(2)=
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a
a210
b
1+a2a10
c
a210
d
1+a10a2
answer is B.
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Detailed Solution
f(g(x))=x⇒f′(g(x))g′(x)=1…..(1)f′(x)=x101+x2&g(2)=af′(g(x))=(g(x))101+(g(x))2⇒f′(g(2))=(g(2))101+(g(2))2=a101+a2…..x=2 in (1) f′(g(2))⋅g1(2)=1 …….(3) (2) and (3) ⇒a101+a2g1(2)=1⇒g′(2)=1+a2a10