Courses
By rohit.pandey1
|
Updated on 15 Sep 2025, 16:55 IST
The Indian Constitution is one of the most important chapters in the Class 8 Social Science syllabus, and mastering it is crucial for scoring well in exams. Here, we bring you a comprehensive set of Class 8 Civics MCQs on The Indian Constitution based on NCERT’s Social and Political Life – Chapter 1. These MCQ questions with answers cover key topics such as the Preamble, key features of the Constitution, Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), Fundamental Duties, and important dates related to its adoption and enforcement.
Students can practice online through a timed MCQ test or download the free PDF for offline revision. Each question includes detailed explanations to help you understand concepts better and prepare effectively for school tests, Olympiads, and other competitive exams.
Attempt these Class 8 Civics MCQs on The Indian Constitution topic-wise. Each question includes four options, the correct answer, and a short explanation for conceptual clarity.
Q1. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution promises justice in which forms?
a) Social, Political, Economic
b) Social, Economic, Political
c) Economic, Social, Cultural
d) Social, Religious, Economic
Answer: b) Social, Economic, Political Explanation: The Preamble explicitly mentions justice in social, economic, and political terms to ensure equality for all citizens.
Q2. The term “Secular” in the Preamble means:
a) No citizen can practice religion
b) The State has its own official religion
c) Equal respect and freedom for all religions
d) Religion is compulsory in governance
Answer: c) Equal respect and freedom for all religions Explanation: Secularism ensures that the State treats all religions equally and does not favor any religion.
Q3. Which of the following words were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment?
a) Socialist & Secular
b) Democratic & Republic
c) Liberty & Equality
d) Sovereign & Republic
Answer: a) Socialist & Secular Explanation: The 42nd Amendment (1976) inserted “Socialist” and “Secular” to emphasize these ideals.
Q4. “We, the People of India…” in the Preamble signifies:
a) India is ruled by the British Crown
b) People are the ultimate source of authority
c) Only Parliament makes laws
d) Supreme Court is supreme
Answer: b) People are the ultimate source of authority Explanation: The Constitution derives its power from the people, ensuring popular sovereignty.
Q5. Which word in the Preamble emphasizes unity among citizens?
a) Justice
b) Equality
c) Fraternity
d) Liberty
Answer: c) Fraternity Explanation: “Fraternity” promotes brotherhood and unity, ensuring dignity of the individual and national integrity.
Q6. India is called a “Republic” because:
a) President is elected, not hereditary
b) People elect the Prime Minister
c) Governor rules the State
d) Judiciary is independent
Answer: a) President is elected, not hereditary Explanation: Republic means the head of state is elected and not a monarch.
Q7. Federalism in India means:
a) Power is concentrated at the Centre
b) Power is shared between Centre and States
c) Only States make laws
d) Local bodies govern the country
Answer: b) Power is shared between Centre and States Explanation: India has a federal structure where power is divided between central and state governments.
JEE
NEET
Foundation JEE
Foundation NEET
CBSE
Q8. Which feature ensures that no organ of the government becomes too powerful?
a) Secularism
b) Federalism
c) Separation of Powers
d) Sovereignty
Answer: c) Separation of Powers Explanation: Powers are divided among Legislature, Executive, and Judiciary to maintain checks and balances.
Q9. Which organ of the government is responsible for making laws?
a) Executive
b) Legislature
c) Judiciary
d) Media
Answer: b) Legislature Explanation: Legislature (Parliament/Assemblies) makes laws for the country.
Q10. “Parliamentary form of government” means:
a) President is the real head of government
b) Prime Minister is directly elected by people
c) Council of Ministers is responsible to Parliament
d) Parliament can be dissolved anytime
Answer: c) Council of Ministers is responsible to Parliament Explanation: Parliamentary system ensures executive accountability to the legislature.
Q11. The Indian Constitution is the:
a) Longest written constitution in the world
b) Shortest written constitution
c) Unwritten like UK
d) Based only on customs
Answer: a) Longest written constitution in the world Explanation: With originally 395 Articles, it is the most detailed constitution globally.
Q12. Which schedule lists Union, State, and Concurrent subjects?
a) First Schedule
b) Seventh Schedule
c) Ninth Schedule
d) Tenth Schedule
Answer: b) Seventh Schedule Explanation: The 7th Schedule divides powers into Union, State, and Concurrent Lists.
Q13. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?
a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
d) Sardar Patel
Answer: c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad Explanation: He presided over the Constituent Assembly meetings.
Q14. Which country’s Constitution inspired Fundamental Rights?
a) USA
b) UK
c) France
d) Ireland
Answer: a) USA Explanation: The concept of justiciable Fundamental Rights was borrowed from the US Bill of Rights.
Q15. The idea of Directive Principles was borrowed from:
a) USA
b) USSR
c) Ireland
d) Canada
Answer: c) Ireland Explanation: DPSP are inspired by the Irish Constitution.
Q16. Right to Equality is given under Articles:
a) 12–18
b) 19–22
c) 23–24
d) 25–28
Answer: a) 12–18 Explanation: Articles 12–18 guarantee equality before law and abolition of untouchability/titles.
Q17. Which Fundamental Right allows citizens to move Supreme Court for enforcement?
a) Right to Freedom
b) Right to Constitutional Remedies
c) Right to Equality
d) Right to Education
Answer: b) Right to Constitutional Remedies Explanation: Article 32 empowers citizens to approach the Supreme Court directly.
Q18. The Right to Education (6–14 years) was added by which amendment?
a) 42nd Amendment
b) 44th Amendment
c) 86th Amendment
d) 91st Amendment
Answer: c) 86th Amendment Explanation: Article 21A made education a Fundamental Right.
Q19. DPSPs are:
a) Justiciable in court
b) Non-justiciable guidelines
c) Fundamental Duties
d) Emergency provisions
Answer: b) Non-justiciable guidelines Explanation: DPSPs cannot be enforced by courts but guide state policy.
Q20. Which of these is a Fundamental Duty?
a) Right to Vote
b) To defend the country and render national service
c) To get free education
d) To form political parties
Answer: b) To defend the country and render national service Explanation: Article 51A lists Fundamental Duties including defending the nation.
Q21. Residuary powers in India belong to:
a) States
b) Parliament
c) President
d) Judiciary
Answer: b) Parliament Explanation: Central Government has residuary powers unlike typical federations.
Q22. Money Bills can be introduced in:
a) Rajya Sabha only
b) Lok Sabha only
c) Both Houses
d) Either House with President’s permission
Answer: b) Lok Sabha only Explanation: Money Bills must originate in Lok Sabha.
Q23. Who appoints the Prime Minister?
a) President
b) Speaker
c) Lok Sabha
d) Chief Justice of India
Answer: a) President Explanation: The President appoints the PM, usually leader of majority party.
Q24. The highest court of justice in India is:
a) High Court
b) Supreme Court
c) District Court
d) Lok Adalat
Answer: b) Supreme Court Explanation: Supreme Court is the apex court of India.
Q25. No-confidence motion is passed against:
a) President
b) Governor
c) Council of Ministers
d) Chief Justice
Answer: c) Council of Ministers Explanation: It shows that the Council no longer enjoys majority support in Lok Sabha.
Q26. The Constitution came into force on:
a) 15 August 1947
b) 26 November 1949
c) 26 January 1950
d) 2 October 1950
Answer: c) 26 January 1950 Explanation: This day is celebrated as Republic Day.
Q27. “Objectives Resolution” was moved by:
a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
b) B.R. Ambedkar
c) Jawaharlal Nehru
d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: c) Jawaharlal Nehru Explanation: Objectives Resolution laid the foundation of the Constitution.
Q28. Number of members in Constituent Assembly at the time of adoption:
a) 299
b) 389
c) 272
d) 245
Answer: a) 299 Explanation: 299 members signed the final draft on 26 Nov 1949.
Q29. Who is called the “Chief Architect of the Indian Constitution”?
a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
c) Sardar Patel
d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer: b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Explanation: He was Chairman of the Drafting Committee and played a key role.
Q30. The Constituent Assembly first met on:
a) 26 Jan 1950
b) 15 Aug 1947
c) 9 Dec 1946
d) 26 Nov 1949
Answer: c) 9 Dec 1946 Explanation: The Assembly held its first session on this date.
Case 1:
Read the passage and answer Q1–Q2:
"The Preamble of the Indian Constitution declares India to be a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic. It aims to secure Justice, Liberty, Equality and promote Fraternity."
Q1. According to the passage, the word "Sovereign" means:
a) India is ruled by the British Crown
b) India is free to make its own laws
c) India follows another country’s Constitution
d) India has a monarchy
Answer: b) India is free to make its own laws
Explanation: Sovereignty means India is independent and not under any external control.
Q2. Which of these is not mentioned in the Preamble?
a) Justice
b) Liberty
c) Equality
d) Monarchy
Answer: d) Monarchy
Explanation: The Preamble mentions Republic, not Monarchy.
Case 2:
"A citizen filed a case in the Supreme Court claiming violation of his Right to Equality under Article 14."
Q3. Which Fundamental Right is being enforced here?
a) Right to Freedom
b) Right to Equality
c) Right to Education
d) Right to Freedom of Religion
Answer: b) Right to Equality
Explanation: Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of the laws.
Q4. Which Article allows him to directly approach the Supreme Court?
a) Article 19
b) Article 32
c) Article 21A
d) Article 51A
Answer: b) Article 32
Explanation: Article 32 is called the "heart and soul" of the Constitution by Dr. Ambedkar.
Case 3:
"Directive Principles of State Policy are non-justiciable but aim to create a welfare state."
Q5. DPSPs are inspired by which country?
a) USA
b) Ireland
c) Canada
d) UK
Answer: b) Ireland
Explanation: The concept of DPSPs was borrowed from the Irish Constitution.
Q6. Assertion (A): The Indian Constitution provides for a federal system with a strong centre.
Reason (R): Residuary powers rest with the States.
Answer: A is true, R is false
Explanation: Residuary powers are with the Centre, making it a federal system with unitary bias.
Q7. Assertion (A): Fundamental Rights can never be suspended.
Reason (R): They are guaranteed by the Constitution.
Answer: A is false, R is true
Explanation: During National Emergency (except Arts. 20 & 21), some rights can be suspended.
Q8. Assertion (A): India follows a Parliamentary system of government.
Reason (R): The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Parliament.
Answer: Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Q9. Assertion (A): Secularism means equal respect for all religions.
Reason (R): The State can promote one religion over others.
Answer: A is true, R is false
Explanation: The State does not favor any religion.
Q10. Assertion (A): Fundamental Duties are enforceable by law.
Reason (R): They are part of Part IV-A of the Constitution.
Answer: A is false, R is true
Explanation: Fundamental Duties are moral obligations, not legally enforceable.
No courses found
Originally, there were 395 Articles divided into 22 Parts.
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar is regarded as the Father of the Indian Constitution.
The Preamble states the ideals and philosophy of the Constitution and acts as an introduction to it.
Part III of the Indian Constitution (Articles 12–35).
Because the Constitution came into effect on 26 January 1950, making India a Republic.