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NEET 2025 Questions: The NEET 2025 exam is one of the most important medical entrance exams for students aiming to pursue MBBS, BDS, and other medical courses in India. Preparing for NEET 2025 requires a deep understanding of subjects like Physics, Chemistry, and Biology. To excel in this exam, practicing a wide variety of NEET 2025 questions is essential. These questions help students get familiar with the exam pattern, improve their problem-solving skills, and build confidence. Regular practice not only strengthens core concepts but also boosts time management during the actual exam, ensuring success.
NEET Practice Questions
For students studying for the National Eligibility and Entrance Test, NEET practice questions are crucial. These questions improve problem-solving abilities and time management in addition to helping evaluate knowledge in a variety of subjects, including biology, chemistry, and physics. Practicing a range of NEET multiple-choice questions helps applicants become more comfortable with the style of the test and boost their confidence. Additionally, answering NEET practice questions guarantees a deep comprehension of fundamental ideas, which facilitates tackling difficult subjects on the test. A calculated strategy to getting a high NEET score is to consistently complete challenging practice questions.
100 Most Important NEET Practice Questions You Should Know
Biology NEET Questions
1. Which of the following is NOT a primary role of the skeletal system in the human body?
a) Production of red blood cells
b) Storage of minerals
c) Contraction and relaxation
d) Support to body
Answer: c) Contraction and relaxation
2. What is the main enzyme involved in the Calvin cycle of photosynthesis?
a) Hexokinase
b) Rubisco
c) DNA polymerase
d) ATP synthase
Answer: b) Rubisco
3. Which hormone is responsible for regulating calcium levels in the blood?
a) Thyroxine
b) Insulin
c) Calcitonin
d) Aldosterone
Answer: c) Calcitonin
4. Which stage of the cell cycle requires the longest to finish?
a) Prophase
b) Metaphase
c) Interphase
d) Anaphase
Answer: c) Interphase
5. In humans, the sex of a baby is determined by the sex chromosome inherited from the father because
a) The mother can only contribute an X chromosome
b) The father can contribute either an X or Y chromosome
c) Both parents contribute X chromosomes
d) The environment plays a role in sex determination
Answer: b) The father can contribute either an X or Y chromosome
6. Which of the following diseases is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin D?
a) Beriberi
b) Rickets
c) Scurvy
d) Pellagra
Answer: b) Rickets
7. In which part of the human body are red blood cells produced?
a) Liver
b) Kidneys
c) Bone marrow
d) Spleen
Answer: c) Bone marrow
8. Which of the following represents the correct order of processes in the nitrogen cycle?
a) Nitrification, Ammonification, Denitrification
b) Ammonification, Nitrification, Denitrification
c) Nitrogen fixation, Ammonification, Denitrification
d) Denitrification, Nitrogen fixation, Nitrification
Answer: b) Ammonification, Nitrification, Denitrification
9. Which of the following statements is true for DNA replication?
a) It occurs in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells
b) It is a conservative process
c) Helicase is involved in unwinding the DNA strands
d) The lagging strand is synthesized continuously
Answer: c) Helicase is involved in unwinding the DNA strands
10. Which plant hormone is primarily responsible for seed dormancy?
a) Gibberellin
b) Ethylene
c) Cytokinin
d) Abscisic acid
Answer: d) Abscisic acid
11. Which part of the plant is mainly responsible for transpiration?
A) Roots
B) Stems
C) Leaves
D) Flowers
Answer: C) Leaves
12. The genetic material in most organisms is made up of:
A) RNA
B) DNA
C) Proteins
D) Lipids
Answer: B) DNA
13. Which of the following describes a human vestigial organ?
A) Heart
B) Liver
C) Appendix
D) Spleen
Answer: C) Appendix
14. In humans, the exchange of gases between blood and air occurs in:
A) Trachea
B) Bronchi
C) Alveoli
D) Larynx
Answer: C) Alveoli
15. The powerhouse of the cell is:
A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondrion
C) Ribosome
D) Golgi apparatus
Answer: B) Mitochondrion
16. Specifically, what hormone regulates blood glucose levels most effectively?
A) Insulin
B) Glucagon
C) Both A and B
D) Thyroxine
Answer: C) Both A and B
17. The process by which plants convert light energy into chemical energy is:
A) Respiration
B) Photosynthesis
C) Transpiration
D) Digestion
Answer: B) Photosynthesis
18. In humans, digestion of starch begins in the:
A) Stomach
B) Mouth
C) Small intestine
D) Large intestine
Answer: B) Mouth
19. Which type of connective tissue stores fat in the human body?
A) Cartilage
B) Adipose tissue
C) Bone
D) Blood
Answer: B) Adipose tissue
20. The blood group that is considered the universal donor is:
A) AB+
B) O-
C) A+
D) B+
Answer: B) O-
Chemistry NEET Questions
1. Among the following, which one is NOT considered a widespread property of matter?
a) Volume
b) Mass
c) Temperature
d) Heat capacity
Answer: c) Temperature
2. Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity?
a) Oxygen
b) Fluorine
c) Chlorine
d) Nitrogen
Answer: b) Fluorine
3. What is the hybridization of carbon atoms in ethyne (C₂H₂)?
a) sp³
b) sp²
c) sp
d) dsp²
Answer: c) sp
4. Which of the following gases is used in the Haber process for ammonia production?
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Hydrogen
d) Carbon dioxide
Answer: b) Nitrogen
5. Which of the following compounds is incapable of forming hydrogen bonds?
a) Water
b) Ammonia
c) Methanol
d) Carbon tetrachloride
Answer: d) Carbon tetrachloride
6. Which of the following statements is correct for an ideal gas?
a) The intermolecular forces between gas molecules are strong
b) The volume of the gas molecules is negligible
c) The temperature of the gas is dependent on its pressure
d) Gas molecules move in a non-random manner
Answer: b) The volume of the gas molecules is negligible
7. What is the strongest acid among these?
a) HCl
b) HNO₃
c) H₂SO₄
d) HF
Answer: c) H₂SO₄
8. Which of the following statements about transition metals is true?
a) They form colorless compounds
b) They have low melting points
c) They show variable oxidation states
d) They are highly reactive in their elemental forms
Answer: c) They show variable oxidation states
9. Which of the following processes involves a decrease in entropy?
a) Melting of ice
b) Evaporation of water
c) Condensation of steam
d) Sublimation of dry ice
Answer: c) Condensation of steam
10. Which quantum number determines the shape of an orbital?
a) Principal quantum number
b) Azimuthal quantum number
c) Magnetic quantum number
d) Spin quantum number
Answer: b) Azimuthal quantum number
11. Which of the following is the most stable oxidation state of iron in its compounds?
a) +1
b) +2
c) +3
d) +6
Answer: c) +3
12. The bond dissociation energy of a C–C bond in ethane is approximately:
a) 200 kJ/mol
b) 350 kJ/mol
c) 410 kJ/mol
d) 600 kJ/mol
Answer: b) 350 kJ/mol
13. Which of the following ions does not show color in aqueous solution?
a) MnO₄⁻
b) Fe²⁺
c) Zn²⁺
d) Cu²⁺
Answer: c) Zn²⁺
14. The isoelectric point (pI) of a neutral amino acid is the pH at which:
a) All amino groups are protonated
b) The amino acid exists predominantly as a zwitterion
c) The amino acid is fully ionized
d) No charge exists on the amino acid
Answer: b) The amino acid exists predominantly as a zwitterion
15. In which of the following reactions does a decrease in entropy occur?
a) H₂O(l) → H₂O(g)
b) NH₃(g) → N₂(g) + H₂(g)
c) CO₂(g) + H₂O(l) → H₂CO₃(aq)
d) CaCO₃(s) → CaO(s) + CO₂(g)
Answer: c) CO₂(g) + H₂O(l) → H₂CO₃(aq)
16. Which of the following elements is a metalloid?
a) Sodium
b) Carbon
c) Silicon
d) Argon
Answer: c) Silicon
17. Which of the following compounds exhibits resonance?
a) CCl₄
b) CH₄
c) O₃
d) H₂O
Answer: c) O₃
18. The hybridization of sulfur in SF₆ is:
a) sp
b) sp²
c) sp³
d) sp³d²
Answer: d) sp³d²
19. Which of the following will have the lowest ionization energy?
a) Li
b) Na
c) K
d) Rb
Answer: d) Rb
20. What is the primary interaction responsible for the formation of a hydrogen bond?
a) Electrostatic attraction
b) Covalent bonding
c) Ionic bonding
d) Van der Waals forces
Answer: a) Electrostatic attraction
21. The product of the reaction between ethene and bromine in the presence of CCl₄ is:
a) 1,1-dibromoethane
b) 1,2-dibromoethane
c) Ethanol
d) Bromoethanol
Answer: b) 1,2-dibromoethane
22. In the electrolysis of molten NaCl, what is produced at the cathode?
a) Sodium
b) Chlorine
c) Hydrogen
d) Oxygen
Answer: a) Sodium
23. The number of unpaired electrons in a Ni²⁺ ion (atomic number of Ni = 28) is:
a) 0
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
Answer: b) 2
24. Which of the following acids is the strongest?
a) H₂CO₃
b) H₃PO₄
c) HNO₃
d) H₂SO₄
Answer: d) H₂SO₄
25. In which of the following solvents will NaCl have the highest solubility?
a) Hexane
b) Benzene
c) Water
d) Ethanol
Answer: c) Water
26. Which of the following is NOT an example of a colligative property?
a) Osmotic pressure
b) Boiling point elevation
c) Freezing point depression
d) pH
Answer: d) pH
27. What is the IUPAC name of the compound CH₃-CH₂-COOH?
a) Propanoic acid
b) Ethanoic acid
c) Butanoic acid
d) Methanoic acid
Answer: a) Propanoic acid
28. Which of the following molecules is non-polar?
a) H₂O
b) NH₃
c) CO₂
d) HCl
Answer: c) CO₂
29. Which of the following has the highest lattice energy?
a) NaCl
b) MgO
c) KBr
d) CaF₂
Answer: b) MgO
30. The number of significant figures in the measurement 0.00450 m is:
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: b) 3
Physics NEET Questions
1. The SI unit of electric current is
a) Coulomb
b) Volt
c) Ampere
d) Ohm
Answer: c) Ampere
2. What is the dimensional formula for angular velocity?
a) [M¹L¹T⁻¹]
b) [M⁰L⁰T⁻¹]
c) [M¹L⁰T¹]
d) [M⁰L¹T⁻²]
Answer: b) [M⁰L⁰T⁻¹]
3. Which of the following phenomena proves the wave nature of light?
a) Photoelectric effect
b) Compton effect
c) Diffraction
d) Blackbody radiation
Answer: c) Diffraction
4. In a simple harmonic motion, the acceleration of the particle is directly proportional to
a) Displacement from the mean position
b) Square of the displacement
c) Velocity of the particle
d) Square of the velocity
Answer: a) Displacement from the mean position
5. What is a scalar quantity among these?
a) Force
b) Velocity
c) Acceleration
d) Work
Answer: d) Work
6. In which of the following mediums does sound travel the fastest?
a) Air
b) Water
c) Steel
d) Vacuum
Answer: c) Steel
7. Which of the following does not represent an energy unit?
a) Joule
b) Electronvolt
c) Watt
d) Calorie
Answer: c) Watt
8. The focal length of a convex lens is 20 cm. What is the power of the lens?
a) +5 D
b) +20 D
c) -5 D
d) -20 D
Answer: a) +5 D
9. The time period of a pendulum depends on which of the following factors?
a) Mass of the bob
b) Length of the string
c) Amplitude of the swing
d) Gravitational constant
Answer: b) Length of the string
10. What is conserved in the event of a nuclear reaction?
a) Charge only
b) Mass number only
c) Both energy and momentum
d) Only the number of protons
Answer: c) Both energy and momentum
11. A point mass is in motion along a circular path with constant speed. What is the direction of its acceleration at any point?
A) Tangential to the path
B) Directed radially inward
C) Directed radially outward
D) Perpendicular to the velocity
12. Which of the following is not a property of electromagnetic waves?
A) They are longitudinal waves
B) They do not require a medium to propagate
C) Their speed in a vacuum is constant
D) They carry energy
14. Which of the following laws gives the correct relation between magnetic field and the current producing it?
A) Coulomb’s Law
B) Ohm’s Law
C) Biot-Savart Law
D) Faraday’s Law
15. A lens has a power of -2D. What type of lens is it?
A) Convex lens
B) Concave lens
C) Cylindrical lens
D) Plano-convex lens
16. The frequency of revolution of an electron in a magnetic field is directly proportional to:
A) The radius of its path
B) Its charge
C) Its speed
D) Its kinetic energy
17. Which of the following is true for an ideal gas?
A) The internal energy depends only on pressure
B) The internal energy depends only on temperature
C) The internal energy depends on volume and pressure
D) The internal energy is constant for all states
18. In an adiabatic process, the quantity that remains constant is:
A) Heat
B) Pressure
C) Volume
D) Entropy
20. The work done in a reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas depends on:
A) Only the change in volume
B) The initial and final temperature
C) The number of moles and temperature
D) The heat supplied to the gas
Mixed NEET Questions
1. Of the following, which is NOT a feature of living things?
A) Growth
B) Reproduction
C) Inability to evolve
D) Metabolism
Answer: C) Inability to evolve
2. The enzyme that converts starch to maltose is called:
A) Amylase
B) Lipase
C) Pepsin
D) Sucrase
Answer: A) Amylase
3. In photosynthesis, the light-dependent reactions occur in which part of the chloroplast?
A) Stroma
B) Thylakoid membranes
C) Cytoplasm
D) Outer membrane
Answer: B) Thylakoid membranes
4. Which of the following statements about the structure of DNA is true?
A) DNA is a single-stranded molecule
B) DNA contains uracil instead of thymine
C) DNA has a double helix structure
D) DNA is composed of amino acids
Answer: C) DNA has a double helix structure
5. Which area of the brain controls balance and coordination the most in humans?
A) Cerebrum
B) Cerebellum
C) Medulla oblongata
D) Thalamus
Answer: B) Cerebellum
6. In cells, the main job of ribosomes is to:
A) Synthesize DNA
B) Produce proteins
C) Generate energy
D) Transport materials
Answer: B) Produce proteins
7. Which of the following is an example of an autotrophic organism?
A) Human
B) Mushroom
C) Green algae
D) Earthworm
Answer: C) Green algae
8. The phenotypic ratio of the progeny in a dihybrid cross is usually:
A) 3:1
B) 9:3:3:1
C) 1:2:1
D) 1:1
Answer: B) 9:3:3:1
9. Which of the following procedures entails water passing through a membrane that is selectively permeable?
A) Diffusion
B) Osmosis
C) Active transport
D) Facilitated diffusion
Answer: B) Osmosis
10. The primary structure of proteins is determined by:
A) The shape of the protein
B) The sequence of amino acids
C) The type of bonding
D) The presence of coenzymes
Answer: B) The sequence of amino acids
11.Which hormone is responsible for the fight-or-flight response?
A) Adrenaline
B) Insulin
C) Estrogen
D) Progesterone
Answer: A) Adrenaline
12. Which of the following DOES NOT pertain to a liver function?
A) Detoxification of drugs
B) Production of insulin
C) Synthesis of bile
D) Storage of glycogen
Answer: B) Production of insulin
13. Which kind of link binds the two DNA strands together?
A) Ionic bonds
B) Hydrogen bonds
C) Covalent bonds
D) Metallic bonds
Answer: B) Hydrogen bonds
14. The spleen is responsible for which of the following functions?
A) Producing insulin
B) Filtering blood
C) Digesting food
D) Absorbing nutrients
Answer: B) Filtering blood
15. Which gas is primarily responsible for the greenhouse effect?
A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Hydrogen
Answer: C) Carbon dioxide
16. What is the primary product of glycolysis?
A) Lactic acid
B) Pyruvate
C) Acetyl-CoA
D) Glucose
Answer: B) Pyruvate
17. Which type of plant hormone promotes cell elongation?
A) Auxin
B) Gibberellin
C) Cytokinin
D) Ethylene
Answer: B) Gibberellin
18. The basic unit of life is known as:
A) Tissue
B) Organ
C) Cell
D) Organism
Answer: C) Cell
19. Which of the following processes is an example of a physical change?
A) Rusting of iron
B) Burning wood
C) Melting of ice
D) Digestion of food
Answer: C) Melting of ice
20. Where does aerobic respiration mostly take place in a cell?
A) Cytoplasm
B) Nucleus
C) Mitochondria
D) Ribosomes
Answer: C) Mitochondria