Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 4

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science

Get ready to tackle your CBSE Class 10 Social Science exams with confidence! Our “Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 4″ is meticulously designed to align with the latest CBSE syllabus and guidelines. This comprehensive resource provides you with detailed solutions and insightful explanations, helping you grasp the key concepts effectively. Whether you’re revising important dates in history, understanding economic models, or analyzing political structures, these sample papers are your ideal companion for thorough exam preparation. Dive in and make your study sessions productive and stress-free!

Strictly based on the Remodeled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2024-25.

CBSE SST Sample Paper Class 10 2024-2025 with Solutions

SAMPLE PAPER 4 (Solved)

Question 1A:
Who was described by Metternich as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’?
Answer:
Giuseppe Mazzini

OR

Question 1B:
Name a woman warrior in Vietnam who shot down a jet with just twenty bullets.
Answer:
Nguyen Thi Xuan

Question 2:
What were the demands of peasants during the Non-Cooperation Movement?
Answer:
The peasants demanded reduction of revenue, abolition of begar and social boycott of oppressive landlords.

Question 3:
Name two conventional sources of energy.
Answer:
Coal and Petroleum

Question 4:
Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is located in which state?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh.

Question 5:
When was the Food Corporation of India established?
Answer:
It was established in 1965.

Question 6:
Define the two-party system?
Answer:
A two-party system is a system where two major political parties dominate politics and government.

Question 7:
What is globalization?
Answer:
It is the process of rapid integration or inter-connection between countries.

Question 8.A:
Briefly trace the process of German unification.
Answer:
In the 1800s, nationalist feelings were strong in the hearts of the middle-class Germans. They united in 1848 to create a nation-state out of the numerous German States. But the monarchy and the military got together to repress them and they gained support from the landowners of Prussia (the Junkers) too. Prussia soon became the leader of German unification movement. Its Chief Minister Otto von Bismarck was the architect of the process with support from Prussian army and Prussian bureaucracy. The unification process was completed after Prussia won wars with Austria, Denmark and France over seven years time. In January 1871, the Prussian king, William I, was proclaimed the German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles.

OR

Question 8.B:
Explain any three main features of Tonkin Free School.
Answer:
Like other colonisers, the French also thought that they were on a civilising mission.
(i) Thus, the Tonkin Free School was opened to give Western education.
(ii) The school taught science, hygiene and French, other than the common subjects. For these three subjects the students had to attend evening classes and also pay separately.
(iii) The students were not only made to attend these classes but they were asked to sport modem looks too. A typical example of this was that Vietnamese were asked to cut off their long hair and adopt a short hair cut which was absolutely against their culture.

Question 9:
Explain the idea of Satyagraha.
Answer:
Gandhiji said ‘Satyagraha’ was not passive resistance but it called for intensive activity. Physical force was not used against the oppressor, nor vengeance was sought. Only through the power of truth and non-violence, an appeal was made to the conscience of the oppressor. Persuasion, not force, would make the oppressor realise the truth. This ‘dharma’ of non-violence and truth united people against the oppressor and made them realise the truth.

Question 10:
State the importance of petroleum as an energy resource. Mention any four oil fields of India.
Answer:
Petroleum is the next major energy source in India after coal. Petroleum provides fuel for heat and lighting, lubricants for machinery and raw materials for number of manufacturing industries – synthetic textiles, fertiliser and numerous chemical industries.
(i) Mumbai High.
(ii) Ankeleshwar, Gujarat.
(iii) Digboi, Assam. (iv) Bassien, Arabian Sea.

Question 11:
Distinguish between an integrated steel plant and a mini steel plants stating three points of distinction.
Answer:
(i) An integrated steel plant is larger than a mini steel plant.
(ii) Mini steel plants use steel scrap and sponge iron while integrated steel plant use basic raw materials, i.e. iron ore for making steel.
(iii) Mini steel plant produces mild and alloy steel while integrated steel plant produces only steel.

Question 12:
Write a short note on (i) Personal written communication (ii) Telecom network of India.
Answer:
(i) Personal written communication includes cards and envelopes which is also called first class mail.
(ii) India has one of the largest telecom networks in Asia. Excluding urban places more than two thirds of the villages in India have already been covered with Subscriber Trunk Dialling (STD) telephone facility. The development of space technology with communication technology has made integrated development of telecom network successful.

Question 13:
What is meant by national parties? State the criteria for recognizing a party as national and state party.
Answer:
Political parties in India are recognized as ‘National’ or ‘State’ party by the Election Commission of India.
There are some countrywide parties which are called ‘national parties’. These parties have their units in various states. But by and large all these units follow the same policies, programmes and strategy that is decided at the national level.
A party that secures at least six per cent of total votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four states and wins at least 4 seats in the Lok Sabha is recognised as a national party.
A party that secures at least 6 per cent of the total votes in an election to the Legislative Assembly of a state and wins at least two seats is recognised as a state party.

Question 14:
Why are democracies unable to reduce economic inequalities? Explain.
Answer:
Democracies are based on political equality. All individuals have equal right in electing representatives. Parallel to the process of bringing individuals into the political arena on an equal footing, there are growing economic inequalities. A few of the rich enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and incomes. Not only that, their share in the total income of the country has been increasing. Those at the bottom of the society have very little to depend upon. Their incomes have been declining and sometimes they find it difficult to meet their basic needs of life such as food, clothing, house, education and health.

Question 15:
Is the combination of social divisions with politics always explosive? Substantiate with examples from India.
Answer:
The combination of social divisions with politics is not always explosive. Rather in a democracy, political expression of social divisions is very normal and healthy. This allows various disadvantaged and marginal social groups to express their grievances and get the government to attend to these. This leads to the strengthening of democracy. For example, in India, the provision of reservation for certain classes as given in our constitution is a political expression for the welfare of those exploited for centuries.

Question 16:
What are the various social indicators of development?
Answer:
Although the level of income is important indicator of development, it is an inadequate measure of the level of development. Other social indicators are :
Health and Education : People become human resource when investments are made in their health and education.
Sex ratio is defined as the number of females per thousand males. An ideal sex ratio should be more or less equal number of males and females. Sex ratio in favour of males indicates sex discrimination which goes against development.

Question 17:
Explain the ‘decent standard of living.’
Answer:
Minimum items to enable human beings to survive and to keep body and soul together are water, food and shelter. But a certain level of comfort above that has always been considered necessary for a “decent” standard of living. Just how much space there is between necessity and decency depends upon the society’s opinion which changes all the time. Decent standard of living can be expressed in terms of per capita GDP.

Question 18:
What is organised sector? Describe its working conditions.
Answer:
Organised Sector : This sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular. They are registered by the government and have to follow the rules and regulations. These people have job security.
Working Conditions :
(i) Fixed working hours in organized sector : In organized sector working hours are fixed. If employee is working after the fixed time, he would be paid extra money for it.
(ii) Wage structure divided under various heads : The wage structure is divided under various heads like provident fund, gratuity and various allowances. Employees get pension after retirement in organized sector.

Question 19.A:
How is culture a great agent of globalization? Explain with example.
Answer:
Trade and cultural exchange went hand in hand. Religion was perhaps one of the most important commodities carried along the Silk Route. Buddhism reached China from India along the northern branch of the route. The Karakoram passes were used as a means by the missionaries to explore the faiths and scriptures.
Art, literature and philosophical ideas were exchanged and in the process, it affected the cultures of different countries to which the route branched out. Even Christian missionaries travelled along the Silk Route to Asia, followed by Muslim preachers a few centuries later. The long rule of British in India also left an indelible western influence in different ways.

OR

Question 19.B:
Describe the nexus between merchants and cotton textile producers in proto-industry.
Answer:
In the proto-industrial stage, cotton textile was produced in the following ways :
(i) Merchant clothier bought wool from stapler, the person who sorted wool according to its fibres.
(ii) Then, he took the wool to spinners to produce spun yams.
(iii) Yam (threads) were finally given to the weavers for weaving and the fullers who gathered cloths by pleating and finally sent to dyers for colouring.
As a result, a close relationship between town and countryside developed in which a network of commercial exchange existed between merchants and farmers.

OR

Question 19.C:
What forms of entertainment were available in nineteenth century in England to provide leisure activities for the people?
Answer:
Cultural events increased as a form of leisure as London expanded in the middle of the eighteenth century.
(i) During the Annual London Season, the wealthy Britishers celebrated mostly by patronising operas, theatres and classical music performances. The London Season was a traditional celebration time for upper class after the Christmas and Easter festivals.
(ii) The pubs were meeting places where drinks were served, news were exchanged and debates on different issues were discussed especially by the working class.
(iii) Libraries, art galleries, museums, etc, were established in the nineteenth century and they increased historical sense and pride in British identity and achievements.

Question 20.A:
What was the role of cartoons and caricatures in new forms of publications?
Answer:
By the 1870s, cartoons and caricatures appeared in many journals and newspapers. They commented on social and political issues. By making fun of certain beliefs, they aroused the public and made them think about certain rules of society and the role of imperial rulers. Some caricatures made film of the educated Indians’ fascination for everything western in tastes, clothes, etc. Some, on the other hand, expressed fear of change of any kind. In the field of politics they lampooned the behaviour and attitude of imperial rulers. The imperial rulers returned the compliment by making fun of and caricaturing the nationalists. Cartoons and caricatures typically suggested that the monarchy remained absorbed only in sensual pleasures while the common people suffered immense hardships. This literature circulated underground and led to the growth of hostile sentiments against the monarchy.

OR

Question 20.B:
What were the main themes of the novels in the 19th century?
Answer:
In the 19th century, the Industrial Revolution had changed the society. Factories came up and the rich kept all the profits and became richer. The poor had a miserable time. There was unemployment and people roamed on streets in search of jobs. Novelists wrote critically about the deplorable condition of the poor. Charles Dickens described these conditions in his novel ‘Hard Times ’ and ill-treatment of children in workhouses in his novel ‘Oliver Twist’. His novel Hard Times (1854) describes Coke town, a fictitious industrial town, as a grim place full of machinery, smoking chimneys, rivers polluted purple and buildings that all looked the same. Here workers are known as ‘hands’, as if they had no identity other than as operators of machines. Dickens criticised the greed for profits.

Question 21:
Distinguish between Intensive Subsistence Farming and Commercial Farming.
Answer:

 

Question 22:
How can religion influence politics?
Answer:
(i) Gandhiji believed that politics must be guided by ethics drawn from all religions.
(ii) Ideas, ideals and values drawn from different religions can play a role in politics. These can have a good moral effect on politics.
(iii) People should have the freedom to express in politics their needs, interest and demands as a member of a religious community.
(iv) People who hold political power should see that discrimination and oppression do not take place due to religion.
(v) Religious sentiments should not be exploited for electoral gains.

Question 23:
In which way does the language policy in India help our country avoid the situation that Sri Lanka is in today?
Answer:
Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language. Although Hindi was identified as the official language but there were many safeguards to protect other languages. According to the Constitution, the use of English for official purpose was to stop in 1965. However, many non-Hindi-speaking states demanded that the use of English should continue. The central government decided to continue the use of English along with Hindi for official purposes. Hindi is not imposed on states where people speak a different language. The flexibility shown by Indian political leaders helped our country avoid the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in.
In Sri Lanka, the major social groups are the Sinhala-speakers (74%) and the Tamil-speakers (18%). In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil. Due to this, and other reasons, the relations between the Sinhala and the Tamil communities got strained over time.

Question 24:
Give a few examples of public sector activities and explain the role of government in this sector.
Answer:
Construction of roads, bridges, railways, harbours, generating electricity, providing irrigation through dams, health, education etc. are a few examples of public sector activities.
Government has taken up these activities because these require a huge amount of investment which is beyond the capacity of the private sector. Several things are needed by the society as a whole which the private sector will not provide at a reasonable cost. Even if they do provide these things, they would charge a high rate for their use.
Let us further understand this with the help of an example. Selling electricity at a price which covers the full cost of generation may push up the cost of production in industries. Many units, specially small scale units, might have to shut down. Government here steps in by producing and supplying electricity at rates which these industries can afford. So the government has to bear a part of the cost.

Question 25:
Discuss the need of service sector.
Answer:
Service sector is the most important sector of economy today. This sector amply complements and aids the other two sectors of the economy. Following are the needs of service sector :
(i) Production of goods is concentrated but the consumers are scattered all over the world.
(ii) Goods are produced in large quantities but the consumers purchase them in small qualities.
(iii) There is wide gap of distance, time, risk and knowledge between the production and consumption of goods.
(iv) Primary and secondary sectors cannot develop without the service sector.
(v) Service sector helps in transportation of goods from factory to market and in allied activities, like banking insurances, etc.

Question 26:
Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India.
(i) The place where Congress session was held in September, 1920.
(ii) The place where the Civil Disobedience Movement began.

Question 27:
Two features A, B are marked in the given outline political map of India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map.
(A) The place where Indian National Congress session was held in 1929.
(B) The place where Non-Cooperation Movement was called off.
Answer:

Question 28:
Locate and label the following items on the same map with appropriate symbols.
(i) Mormugao port
(ii) Bokaro steel plant
(iii) Talcher thermal power plant

Note: The following questions are for the visually impaired candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26, 27 and 28.
(28.1) Where did Jallianwala massacre take place?
(28.2) Where did Gandhiji break the Salt Law?
(28.3) In which state is Paradip port situated?
(28.4) Where is Meenambakkam International Airport located?
(28.5) Which power plant is located at Neyveli?
Answer:
(28.1) Amritsar
(28.2) Dandi
(28.3) Odisha
(28.4) Chennai
(28.5) Thermal power plant

Why Choose Infinity learn Solved Sample Paper for Class 10 Social Science?

Choosing Infinity Learn’s Solved Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science offers students several compelling benefits as they prepare for their board exams:

• Aligned with Latest Syllabus: Each paper is crafted to strictly adhere to the latest NCERT and CBSE guidelines, ensuring that students study relevant and current material.
• Expert Solutions: The solutions are provided by experienced educators who have a deep understanding of the subject matter and examination patterns. This expert guidance helps clarify complex concepts and improve problem-solving skills.
• Enhanced Understanding: The detailed explanations accompanying each answer enhance understanding, enabling students to grasp the ‘why’ and ‘how’ behind each solution, rather than just memorizing facts.
• Effective Revision Tool: These papers serve as an excellent revision tool, helping students consolidate their learning and identify areas needing improvement.
• Boosts Confidence: Regular practice with these papers increases familiarity with the exam format, reducing exam anxiety and boosting confidence.
• Time Management: Working through these sample papers helps students develop effective time management skills, a crucial aspect of performing well in timed exams.

FAQs on CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 Social Science

What is the purpose of CBSE sample papers for Class 10 Social Science?

CBSE sample papers help students assess their preparation level, identify weak areas, and practice questions similar to the board exam pattern. They provide an opportunity to attempt complete question papers and analyze performance.

How many sample papers are available for Class 10 Social Science?

CBSE usually releases at least 4-5 sample papers for each subject, including Social Science. However, more sample papers may be available from various CBSE-approved publishers and online platforms.

What is the format of CBSE Class 10 Social Science sample papers?

The format of sample papers follows the latest CBSE board exam pattern. They include questions from History, Geography, Political Science, and Economics, covering all chapters. The paper consists of multiple-choice questions, short and long answer type questions, and map-based questions.

Are the solutions provided with the sample papers?

Yes, solved sample papers with detailed solutions are available. The solutions explain the step-by-step approach to arrive at the correct answer, helping students understand the concepts better.

How can students use CBSE Class 10 Social Science sample papers effectively?

Students should attempt the sample papers under exam-like conditions, managing time effectively. After attempting, they should evaluate their performance, analyze mistakes, and focus on weak areas. Discussing doubts with teachers and referring to the solutions can further enhance their preparation.